\(g(.)\) is a function from \(A\) to \(B\), \(f(.)\) is a function from \(B\) to \(C\), and their composition defined as \(f(g(.))\) is a mapping from \(A\) to \(C\).
If \(f(.)\) and \(f(g(.))\) are onto (surjective) functions, which ONE of the following is TRUE about the function \(g(.)\)?
Answer
(D)
Explanation
For \(f(g(.))\) to be onto, the values produced by \(g\) only have to be enough for \(f\) to reach every element of \(C\). That puts no one-to-one or onto condition on \(g\) itself.
Counterexample: \(A = \{1, 2\}\), \(B = \{p, q\}\), \(C = \{z\}\), with \(g(1) = g(2) = p\) and \(f(p) = f(q) = z\). Both \(f\) and \(f(g(.))\) are onto, yet \(g\) is not one-to-one (1 and 2 both go to \(p\)) and not onto (\(q\) is never reached). So (A), (B) and (C) are false.
Answer: D